Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
• D. Positive pregnancy test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

2. A client who has a head injury is transported to the emergency department. Which assessment does the emergency department nurse perform immediately?

• A. Pupil response
• B. Motor function
• C. Respiratory status
• D. Short-term memory

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, assessing the respiratory status is the priority as airway and breathing are essential for life. Immediate attention to respiratory status is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While assessing pupil response and motor function are also important in head injuries, ensuring the client's ability to breathe takes precedence. Short-term memory assessment is not a priority in the emergent phase of care for a client with a head injury.

3. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?

• A. "I am often cold and need to wear a sweater."?
• B. "I seem to urinate more when I drink coffee."?
• C. "In the summer, I feel thirsty more often."?
• D. "My rings seem to be tighter this week."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.

4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?

• A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
• B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
• C. No indication of renal impairment.
• D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.

5. A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions?

• A. Airborne
• B. Standard
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Airborne.' Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through the air by respiratory droplets. Therefore, placing the client on airborne precautions is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice B, 'Standard precautions,' involve basic infection prevention measures that are used for all client care. Choice C, 'Contact precautions,' are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, 'Droplet precautions,' are implemented for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets that are larger than 5 microns.

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