ATI RN
Endocrinology Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
- D. Positive pregnancy test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.
2. When obtaining a client’s vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s best intervention?
- A. Call the healthcare provider and report the finding.
- B. Reassess the client’s blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment.
- C. Administer an additional antihypertensive medication to the client.
- D. Teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.
3. A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?
- A. "Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you have to."?
- B. "Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so you have energy to care for your children."?
- C. "You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to your changing status?"?
- D. "Give me more information about what worries you, so we can see if we can do something to make adjustments."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.
4. A client who has a head injury is transported to the emergency department. Which assessment does the emergency department nurse perform immediately?
- A. Pupil response
- B. Motor function
- C. Respiratory status
- D. Short-term memory
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a head injury, assessing the respiratory status is the priority as airway and breathing are essential for life. Immediate attention to respiratory status is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While assessing pupil response and motor function are also important in head injuries, ensuring the client's ability to breathe takes precedence. Short-term memory assessment is not a priority in the emergent phase of care for a client with a head injury.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?
- A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
- B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
- C. No indication of renal impairment.
- D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access