Nursing Elites

1. A client had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with the provider?

• A. Administer enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hr
• B. Place a wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning.
• C. Instruct the client to restrict flexion of the hip past 120�.
• D. Encourage the client to perform foot and calf exercises every 2 hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client should be instructed to restrict hip flexion past 90 degrees to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Restricting flexion past 120 degrees is excessive and could lead to complications. Therefore, the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider to ensure the client's safety and proper postoperative care.

2. During assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following percussion sounds should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dullness
• B. Resonance
• C. Tympany
• D. Flatness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic bronchitis, the nurse or healthcare provider would expect to hear resonant sounds upon percussion. Resonance is the normal percussion sound heard over healthy lung tissue. The other options such as dullness, tympany, and flatness are associated with different conditions or abnormalities, not typically expected in chronic bronchitis.

3. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

5. A client is 12 hours postoperative following colon resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to reduce respiratory complications?

• A. Use incentive spirometer every 4 hours while awake.
• B. Initiate ambulation after discontinuing the NG tube.
• C. Maintain a supine position with an abdominal binder.
• D. Splint the incision to support coughing every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a colon resection surgery, it is essential to support the incision site to reduce the risk of respiratory complications. Splinting the incision helps to minimize pain during coughing, aiding in effective clearing of secretions and preventing respiratory problems. This intervention supports the client's respiratory function postoperatively, promoting optimal recovery.

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