ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A client had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with the provider?
- A. Administer enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hr
- B. Place a wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning.
- C. Instruct the client to restrict flexion of the hip past 120�.
- D. Encourage the client to perform foot and calf exercises every 2 hr
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client should be instructed to restrict hip flexion past 90 degrees to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Restricting flexion past 120 degrees is excessive and could lead to complications. Therefore, the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider to ensure the client's safety and proper postoperative care.
2. What question should a nurse ask a client who has an anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter equal to the lateral chest diameter?
- A. Are you taking any medications or herbal supplements?
- B. Do you have any chronic breathing problems?
- C. How often do you perform aerobic exercise?
- D. What is your occupation and what are your hobbies?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nurse should ask the client if they have any chronic breathing problems when the anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter is the same as the lateral chest diameter. This finding indicates a barrel chest, which can be associated with chronic respiratory conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema. Assessing for chronic breathing problems can help the nurse further evaluate the client's respiratory status and provide appropriate care.
3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)
- A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
- B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
- C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
- D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.
4. How can a nurse manager best improve hand-off communication among the staff? (SATA)
- A. Attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
- B. Conducting audits of staff using a new template.
- C. Creating a template of topics to include in the report.
- D. Utilizing the SHARE model as a tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The SHARE model is a valuable tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication. By utilizing this model, the nurse manager can ensure consistency and clarity in hand-off communication among the staff. While attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor, conducting audits using a new template, and creating a template of topics to include in the report can all be beneficial actions, the most effective approach to achieve the goal of improving hand-off communication is by implementing a standardized tool like the SHARE model.
5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?
- A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
- B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
- C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
- D. 1700 (5:00 PM)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.
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