Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure expresses feelings of burden and thoughts of death to a nurse. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Would you like to talk more about this?
• B. You are lucky to have such a devoted daughter.
• C. It is normal to feel as though you are a burden.
• D. Would you like to meet with the chaplain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially in older adults. When a client expresses thoughts of being a burden and death, it is crucial for the nurse to address these concerns. Offering to talk more about the client's feelings provides an opportunity for open communication and a deeper understanding of the client's emotions. Open-ended questions like the one in choice A encourage the client to express themselves freely, leading to better assessment and client-centered care. Choices B and C fail to address the client's emotional distress directly, and choice D diverts the focus without addressing the client's immediate concerns.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rest for at least 30 minutes before eating.
• B. I will take my bronchodilators after meals.
• C. I will eat five or six small meals each day.
• D. I will choose foods that are not gas-forming.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. When caring for an older adult client with a pulmonary infection, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
• C. Raise the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees.
• D. Provide the client with humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority because it provides crucial information on the client's neurological status and response to the infection. Changes in consciousness can indicate deterioration or improvement in the client's condition, guiding further interventions and treatment.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

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