Nursing Elites

1. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?

• A. All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement projects.
• B. Even as a new nurse, you can implement activities designed to improve care.
• C. It's easy to identify which indicators should be used to measure quality improvement.
• D. You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response is to encourage the newly graduated nurse to actively participate in quality improvement initiatives. Being new does not preclude one from contributing to improving care processes and outcomes. By engaging in small activities focused on quality improvement, the new nurse can start making a positive impact and learn valuable skills early in their career.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B.
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

3. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Increased temperature
• B. Absent breath sounds
• C. Productive cough
• D. Incisional discomfort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Absent breath sounds may indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication post lung biopsy. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

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