Nursing Elites

1. A client is being admitted to the surgical unit from the PACU following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Surgical dressing
• C. Temperature
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client being admitted to the surgical unit following a cholecystectomy is oxygen saturation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, especially after surgery. Hypoxia can have serious consequences and needs to be promptly addressed. While assessing bowel sounds, surgical dressing, and temperature are important, oxygen saturation takes precedence in this situation.

2. When assessing a client with pneumonia, which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pneumonia, lung tissue consolidation occurs, leading to dullness on percussion. This is a typical finding in pneumonia. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more commonly associated with conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Hyperresonance is typically seen in conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema.

3. A client is prescribed prednisone for asthma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication every day to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I will avoid people with infections while taking this medication.
• C. I will take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I feel fine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because prednisone, a corticosteroid, should not be abruptly stopped. It must be tapered off gradually to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate proper understanding of the medication's use and side effects, emphasizing the importance of daily intake, infection prevention, and taking it with food to avoid stomach upset.

4. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

5. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

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