Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest levels of competency. Which areas should the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff demonstrate competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Collaborating with an interdisciplinary team
• B. Implementing evidence-based care
• C. Providing family-focused care
• D. Experimenting on patients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Institute of Medicine (IOM) report 'Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality' outlines five core competencies that healthcare providers should possess. These competencies include collaborating with an interdisciplinary team, implementing evidence-based care, providing family-focused care, using informatics in practice, and focusing on patient-centered care. Therefore, to ensure that nurses are practicing at their highest levels of competency as per the IOM report, the nurse manager should assess all of these areas.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), clients often develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This change in chest shape is a common finding in COPD. Decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings associated with COPD.

4. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

5. When assessing a client with pneumonia, which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pneumonia, lung tissue consolidation occurs, leading to dullness on percussion. This is a typical finding in pneumonia. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more commonly associated with conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Hyperresonance is typically seen in conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema.

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