Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest levels of competency. Which areas should the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff demonstrate competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Collaborating with an interdisciplinary team
• B. Implementing evidence-based care
• C. Providing family-focused care
• D. Experimenting on patients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Institute of Medicine (IOM) report 'Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality' outlines five core competencies that healthcare providers should possess. These competencies include collaborating with an interdisciplinary team, implementing evidence-based care, providing family-focused care, using informatics in practice, and focusing on patient-centered care. Therefore, to ensure that nurses are practicing at their highest levels of competency as per the IOM report, the nurse manager should assess all of these areas.

2. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

4. A patient is receiving discharge instructions after experiencing a stroke. Which instruction is most important for preventing another stroke?

• A. Take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly.
• B. Engage in physical therapy exercises.
• C. Follow a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.
• D. Attend regular follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly. Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, and controlling blood pressure through medication is crucial in preventing recurrent strokes. While physical therapy, diet, and follow-up appointments are also important aspects of post-stroke care, managing hypertension with medication takes precedence due to its direct impact on stroke prevention.

5. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

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