Nursing Elites

1. When preparing a client for transfer to the ICU for placement of a pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse should explain that this catheter is used to monitor which of the following conditions?

• A. Intracranial pressure
• B. Spinal cord perfusion
• C. Renal function
• D. Hemodynamic status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulmonary artery catheter is primarily used to monitor hemodynamic status. It provides essential information on cardiac output, preload, afterload, and overall cardiovascular function. This data helps healthcare providers manage the client's fluid status, cardiac function, and guide treatment interventions in critically ill patients. Monitoring intracranial pressure, spinal cord perfusion, or renal function would require different monitoring devices and techniques, not a pulmonary artery catheter.

2. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client has been NPO for 6 hours before the procedure.
• B. Administer pre-procedure medications as ordered.
• C. Verify that informed consent has been obtained.
• D. Assess the client for any allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client for allergies, particularly to iodine or shellfish, is crucial before a cardiac catheterization because the contrast dye used during the procedure can lead to allergic reactions. Identifying any allergies beforehand allows the healthcare team to take necessary precautions to prevent potential adverse reactions and ensure the client's safety.

3. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

• A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
• B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
• C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
• D. Place in a prone position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

4. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?

• A. A flexed position
• B. An extended position
• C. A neutral position
• D. A hyperextended position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

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