a nurse cares for a client who tests positive for alpha1 antitrypsin aat deficiency the client asks what does this mean how should the nurse respond
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

2. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

3. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response is to encourage the newly graduated nurse to actively participate in quality improvement initiatives. Being new does not preclude one from contributing to improving care processes and outcomes. By engaging in small activities focused on quality improvement, the new nurse can start making a positive impact and learn valuable skills early in their career.

4. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

5. During a call to the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago & has unrelieved pain from prescribed narcotic medication, which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: SBAR is a structured form of communication used in healthcare settings. It stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. In this scenario, informing the on-call physician about the client's allergies to morphine & codeine falls under the 'Background' component of the SBAR format, making choice B the correct answer.

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