Nursing Elites

1. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• B. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask.
• D. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.

2. A client with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Take aspirin for pain relief.
• C. Report any signs of bruising or bleeding to your healthcare provider.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking warfarin, an anticoagulant, is to report any signs of bruising or bleeding to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial as these symptoms may indicate over-anticoagulation, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential to adjust the medication dosage or take appropriate measures to ensure the client's safety.

3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

4. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

5. What question should a nurse ask a client who has an anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter equal to the lateral chest diameter?

• A. Are you taking any medications or herbal supplements?
• B. Do you have any chronic breathing problems?
• C. How often do you perform aerobic exercise?
• D. What is your occupation and what are your hobbies?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nurse should ask the client if they have any chronic breathing problems when the anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter is the same as the lateral chest diameter. This finding indicates a barrel chest, which can be associated with chronic respiratory conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema. Assessing for chronic breathing problems can help the nurse further evaluate the client's respiratory status and provide appropriate care.

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