ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A home health nurse visits a client who has COPD and receives oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min.
- B. Assess the client's respiratory status.
- C. Call emergency services for the client.
- D. Have the client cough and expectorate secretions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy reports difficulty breathing, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's respiratory status. This involves evaluating the client's oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, effort of breathing, lung sounds, and overall respiratory distress. By assessing the client's respiratory status, the nurse can determine the severity of the situation and make appropriate decisions regarding further interventions, such as adjusting oxygen flow rate, providing respiratory treatments, or seeking emergency assistance if necessary.
2. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
- B. Check the surgical site for bleeding.
- C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.
3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
- B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
- C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- D. The client has a productive cough.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.
4. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Isoniazid
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.
5. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?
- A. Wire cutters
- B. NG tube
- C. Urinary catheter tray
- D. IV infusion pump
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.
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