ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Continue taking this medication until you feel better
- B. Take this medication with milk or food
- C. Take the medication with an antacid
- D. Avoid caffeine while taking this medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Rash on the face
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.
3. Which of the following clients requiring crutches should a nurse teach about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight-bearing on the affected leg
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities
- C. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight-bearing on both legs
- D. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A three-point gait is recommended for clients who are non-weight bearing on one leg. In this case, a client with a right femur fracture requiring no weight-bearing on the affected leg would benefit from learning how to use a three-point gait. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve clients who have varying degrees of weight-bearing ability on both legs, which would not require the use of a three-point gait.
4. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare professional to take when a medication error occurs?
- A. Document the error in the patient's medical record.
- B. Report the error to the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Apologize to the patient and explain what happened.
- D. Continue administering the medication and monitor the patient closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a medication error occurs, the most appropriate action for a healthcare professional is to report the error to the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial for ensuring prompt corrective action to mitigate any potential harm to the patient. Documenting the error is important but should come after reporting it to the relevant authorities. Apologizing to the patient is important for maintaining trust and communication but should not take precedence over reporting and addressing the error. Continuing to administer the medication without addressing the error is unsafe and goes against patient safety protocols.
5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
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