a nurse is teaching a client who has a urinary tract infection and is taking ciprofloxacin which of the following instructions should the nurse includ
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.

2. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.

3. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

4. A nurse manager is planning client assignments for the day. Which client should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ambulating a client is a non-invasive task that can be safely and effectively performed by a nursing assistant. Choice B is incorrect as complex wound care requires specialized skills usually performed by licensed nurses. Choice C involves administering intravenous antibiotics, which also requires a higher level of training and assessment skills than a nursing assistant possesses. Choice D, involving a client who is NPO and requires IV hydration, may involve further assessments and monitoring that are beyond the scope of a nursing assistant.

5. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

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