ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. Which of the following is an example of professional negligence?
- A. Following facility guidelines at all times
- B. Using equipment in a knowledgeable manner
- C. Communicating effectively with clients
- D. Documenting client interactions accurately
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Professional negligence involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession, which can lead to harm. In this case, not following facility guidelines can result in lapses in safety or quality of care, potentially causing harm to clients. Choices B, C, and D all represent essential aspects of professional conduct and do not directly relate to negligence.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.
3. Which action by a nurse demonstrates effective communication with a patient?
- A. Providing the patient with written information about their care.
- B. Maintaining eye contact and listening actively to the patient.
- C. Using medical jargon to explain the patient's condition.
- D. Speaking with the patient in a hurried manner to save time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining eye contact and actively listening to the patient is crucial in effective communication as it helps build rapport, shows empathy, and ensures that the patient feels heard and understood. Providing written information can be helpful, but the direct interaction is essential for effective communication. Using medical jargon may confuse the patient instead of clarifying their condition. Speaking hurriedly can make the patient feel rushed and not valued, hindering effective communication.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Albuterol
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.
5. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation?
- A. Encourage the patient to use incentive spirometry.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed.
- C. Assist the patient with coughing and deep breathing exercises.
- D. Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula as prescribed is the most appropriate action to improve the patient's oxygenation in COPD. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, which is crucial for managing COPD. Encouraging the use of incentive spirometry, assisting with coughing and deep breathing exercises, and positioning the patient in high Fowler's position are all beneficial interventions, but administering oxygen is the priority for immediate oxygenation support in COPD.
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