Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours?

• A. To improve circulation and relieve pressure.
• B. To prevent contractures and muscle atrophy.
• C. To prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers.
• D. To improve respiratory function and prevent pneumonia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours is to prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Prolonged immobility can lead to pressure ulcers, making this a crucial nursing intervention. Choice A is incorrect because while turning can help improve circulation and relieve pressure, the primary purpose is to prevent skin breakdown. Choice B is incorrect as preventing contractures and muscle atrophy is important but not the primary purpose of turning. Choice D is incorrect as improving respiratory function and preventing pneumonia are not directly related to turning and repositioning for skin integrity.

2. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of clients. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Perform a testicular self-examination weekly.
• B. Do not palpate the epididymis when performing a testicular self-examination.
• C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
• D. Perform a testicular self-examination after a cool shower.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because testicles should be uniform in consistency when performing a self-exam, and any lumps or abnormalities should be reported. Choice A is incorrect as testicular self-examinations should be performed monthly, not weekly. Choice B is incorrect because the epididymis should be included in the examination. Choice D is incorrect because a warm shower helps relax the scrotum, making the exam easier to perform.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with dehydration. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is worsening?

• A. Dry mucous membranes.
• B. Tachycardia and low blood pressure.
• C. Bradycardia and shallow respirations.
• D. Clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia and low blood pressure are indicative of worsening dehydration in a patient. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased intravascular volume, while low blood pressure reflects inadequate perfusion due to decreased fluid levels. Bradycardia and shallow respirations are not typical findings in worsening dehydration, and clear lung sounds do not directly correlate with the severity of dehydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Demonstrate how to use the spirometer
• B. Set a realistic postoperative goal
• C. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing
• D. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or issues, the nurse can address them effectively, provide education or support, and encourage the client to comply with the necessary postoperative care. This approach fosters a patient-centered care environment. Demonstrating how to use the spirometer (Choice A) may be important but is not the priority at this moment. Setting a realistic postoperative goal (Choice B) is relevant but not as immediate as understanding the client's refusal. Requesting a respiratory therapist (Choice D) can be considered later if needed, but the nurse's initial focus should be on understanding the client's perspective.

5. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

• A. Pregnancy status
• B. Bone density
• C. Calcium levels
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

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