Nursing Elites

1. A client has a three-chamber closed chest tube system, and the water seal chamber rises with client inspiration. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the client.
• B. Immediately notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Reposition the client to the left side.
• D. Clamp the chest tube near the water seal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a three-chamber closed chest tube system, a rise in the water seal chamber with client inspiration is an expected finding. The nurse should continue to monitor the client as this indicates that the system is functioning correctly. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider, reposition the client, or clamp the chest tube as these actions are not indicated in response to a rise in the water seal chamber.

2. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Dexamethasone
• C. Heparin
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of a pulmonary embolism, the priority medication to administer is Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots and the growth of existing ones, which is crucial in managing pulmonary embolism. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, and Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used for various purposes such as treating bradycardia.

5. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

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