Nursing Elites

1. A client had a bronchoscopy 2 hours ago and asks for a drink of water. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Call the healthcare provider to request a prescription for food and water.
• B. Provide the client with ice chips instead of a drink of water.
• C. Assess the client's gag reflex before giving any food or water.
• D. Let the client have a small sip to assess swallowing ability.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a bronchoscopy, a topical anesthetic affects the gag reflex. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client's gag reflex before providing any food or water to ensure its return. This assessment is crucial to prevent aspiration or choking risk in the client.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In COPD, the client often develops a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. Decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typically associated with COPD. Weight loss is more common due to increased work of breathing and decreased energy expenditure in individuals with COPD.

3. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. A nurse in the PACU is assessing a client who has an endotracheal tube (ET) in place and observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue
• B. Passage of the ET tube into the esophagus
• C. Movement of the ET tube into the right main bronchus
• D. Infection of the vocal cords

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration, it indicates that the endotracheal tube (ET) may have migrated into the right main bronchus, leading to uneven chest expansion. This can result in inadequate ventilation to the left lung, causing respiratory compromise. The other options, such as blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue, passage of the ET tube into the esophagus, and infection of the vocal cords, do not directly explain the observed chest wall asymmetry and respiratory distress.

Similar Questions