Nursing Elites

1. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Tobramycin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.

2. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Prepare for mechanical ventilation.
• B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• C. Prepare to administer a sedative.
• D. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

3. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
• B. Daily physical therapy activities.
• C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

4. A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform suctioning for up to four passes.
• B. Apply suction to the catheter when advancing it into the trachea.
• C. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
• D. Limit each suction pass to 25 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. A client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.3 and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg. The client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). The given values of a pH of 7.3 and PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg indicate respiratory acidosis. Metabolic acidosis involves a primary decrease in bicarbonate levels with a compensatory decrease in PaCO2 to maintain balance. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis is marked by low PaCO2 and increased pH levels.

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