Nursing Elites

1. A client in a clinic presents with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medications should reduce the symptoms?

• A. Cromolyn via a metered-dose inhaler
• B. Montelukast orally
• C. Budesonide via a dry-powder inhaler
• D. Albuterol via a jet nebulizer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the preferred medication for symptom relief is a short-acting beta-agonist like albuterol, typically delivered via a jet nebulizer for quick onset and efficacy. Cromolyn, montelukast, and budesonide are not as effective for immediate symptom relief in acute exacerbations and are more commonly used for prevention or long-term management of asthma symptoms.

2. A client with heart failure has gained 2 kg (4.4 lbs) in the past 24 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Assess the client's respiratory status.
• C. Administer diuretics as ordered.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's respiratory status is the priority as it helps determine if the weight gain is due to fluid retention affecting breathing. This assessment is crucial in addressing the immediate concern of potential respiratory distress before implementing interventions like fluid restriction, diuretics, or notifying the healthcare provider.

3. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

4. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rest for at least 30 minutes before eating.
• B. I will take my bronchodilators after meals.
• C. I will eat five or six small meals each day.
• D. I will choose foods that are not gas-forming.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

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