Nursing Elites

1. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A.
• B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
• C. Prepare to insert a central line
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.

2. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

3. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• B. Check the surgical site for bleeding.
• C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?

• A. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
• B. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
• C. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
• D. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats & red meat, high in vegetables & whole grains (fiber), low in salt, & low in trans-fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli & tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat & the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat & no vegetables.

Similar Questions