Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. A client had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?

• A. Poor impulse control
• B. Inability to discriminate words and letters
• C. Deficits in the right visual field
• D. Motor retardation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stroke affecting the right cerebral hemisphere can lead to poor impulse control due to the involvement of this area in regulating behavior and inhibiting impulses. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with stroke affecting the left cerebral hemisphere. Inability to discriminate words and letters may be seen in left cerebral hemisphere strokes. Motor retardation may be observed with strokes affecting motor areas in either hemisphere but is not the most specific finding related to a right cerebral hemisphere stroke.

3. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Report any numbness or tingling in extremities.
• D. Have liver function tests done regularly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial for clients taking isoniazid (INH) due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and early detection through routine liver function tests can help prevent severe complications.

4. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

• A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
• B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
• C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
• D. Place in a prone position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

5. After a thoracentesis, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?

• A. The client rates pain as 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
• B. A small amount of drainage is noted from the site.
• C. Pulse oximetry reads 93% on 2 liters of oxygen.
• D. The trachea is deviated toward the opposite side of the neck.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A deviated trachea indicates a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. This condition can rapidly lead to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention. The other assessment findings, such as pain level, mild drainage, and slightly decreased oxygen saturation, are within an expected range after a thoracentesis and do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life.

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