Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

2. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

3. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

4. A client has a tracheostomy tube in place. When the nurse suctions the client, food particles are noted. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed.
• B. Measure and compare cuff pressures.
• C. Place the client on NPO status.
• D. Request a swallow study for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When food particles are noted during suctioning of a client with a tracheostomy tube, it can indicate tracheomalacia due to constant pressure from the tracheostomy cuff. This condition may lead to dilation of the tracheal passage. To address this issue, the nurse should measure and compare cuff pressures. By monitoring these pressures and comparing them to previous readings, the nurse can identify trends and potential complications. Elevating the head of the bed, placing the client on NPO status, and requesting a swallow study will not directly address the cuff pressure issue causing food particles in the secretions.

5. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
• B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
• C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.

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