Nursing Elites

1. After an open lung biopsy, a nurse assesses a client. Which assessment finding is matched with the correct intervention?

• A. Client states he is dizzy. Nurse applies oxygen and pulse oximetry.
• B. Client's HR is 55 beats/min. Nurse withholds pain medication.
• C. Client has reduced breath sounds. Nurse calls the physician immediately.
• D. Client's RR is 18 breaths/min. Nurse decreases the oxygen flow rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After an open lung biopsy, a potential complication is pneumothorax, often indicated by reduced or absent breath sounds. The nurse should promptly notify the physician to address this serious issue and ensure timely intervention.

2. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

3. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

4. A client takes atorvastatin (Lipitor), with laboratory results showing a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Ask if the client eats grapefruit.
• B. Assess the client for dehydration.
• C. Facilitate admission to the hospital.
• D. Obtain a random urinalysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. The client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating kidney involvement. The nurse should ask if the client consumes grapefruit or grapefruit juice. While dehydration can elevate BUN, the increase in creatinine is more specific for kidney injury.

5. A nurse cares for a female client who has a family history of cystic fibrosis. The client asks, Will my children have cystic fibrosis? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Since many of your family members are carriers, your children will also be carriers of the gene.
• B. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. If you are a carrier, your children will have the disorder.
• C. Since you have a family history of cystic fibrosis, I would encourage you & your partner to be tested.
• D. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a protein that controls the movement of chloride. Adjusting your diet will decrease the spread of this disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder in which both gene alleles must be mutated for the disorder to be expressed. The nurse should encourage both the client & partner to be tested for the abnormal gene. The other statements are not true.

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