Nursing Elites

1. After an open lung biopsy, a nurse assesses a client. Which assessment finding is matched with the correct intervention?

• A. Client states he is dizzy. Nurse applies oxygen and pulse oximetry.
• B. Client's HR is 55 beats/min. Nurse withholds pain medication.
• C. Client has reduced breath sounds. Nurse calls the physician immediately.
• D. Client's RR is 18 breaths/min. Nurse decreases the oxygen flow rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After an open lung biopsy, a potential complication is pneumothorax, often indicated by reduced or absent breath sounds. The nurse should promptly notify the physician to address this serious issue and ensure timely intervention.

2. A client with COPD is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day
• B. Provide the client with a low-protein diet
• C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity
• D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In COPD, pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by maintaining positive pressure in the airways, preventing airway collapse, and promoting oxygenation. This technique assists in controlling respiratory rate, reducing dyspnea, and enhancing oxygen saturation levels. Restricting fluid intake is not typically a part of COPD management. Providing a low-protein diet is not a standard intervention for COPD. Early-morning hours are generally not recommended for exercise due to cooler temperatures and higher pollution levels, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms.

3. When caring for a client with acute renal failure, which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure, monitoring serum potassium is crucial because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, which can result in life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated potassium levels need close monitoring and prompt interventions to prevent serious complications.

4. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
• C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
• D. Administer morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

5. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.

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