Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 4 mL
• B. 6 mL
• C. 10 mL
• D. 5.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL of albuterol syrup needed per dose, first, determine how many milligrams are in the prescribed dose: 1.6 mg. Next, set up a proportion to find the equivalent mL for 1.6 mg using the given concentration of 2 mg/5mL. The calculation is: (1.6 mg x 5 mL) / 2 mg = 4 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL to administer per dose.

3. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an IV line
• B. Count the respiratory rate
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare equipment for intubation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

4. A client had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with the provider?

• A. Administer enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hr
• B. Place a wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning.
• C. Instruct the client to restrict flexion of the hip past 120�.
• D. Encourage the client to perform foot and calf exercises every 2 hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client should be instructed to restrict hip flexion past 90 degrees to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Restricting flexion past 120 degrees is excessive and could lead to complications. Therefore, the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider to ensure the client's safety and proper postoperative care.

5. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?

• A. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
• B. Intact skin behind the ears
• C. The client understanding the need for oxygen
• D. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.

Similar Questions