Nursing Elites

1. When admitting a client with active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit, which of the following room assignments should the nurse make?

• A. A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment
• B. A room with another nonsurgical client
• C. A room in the ICU
• D. A room that is within view of the nurses' station

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When admitting a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to assign them to a room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment to prevent the spread of infectious particles to other patients and healthcare workers. This setup helps in reducing the risk of transmission within the healthcare facility. Placing the client in a room with another nonsurgical client or in the ICU may increase the chances of spreading the infection. Additionally, placing the client in a room within view of the nurses' station does not address the need for proper ventilation to minimize transmission of tuberculosis.

2. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?

• A. All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement projects.
• B. Even as a new nurse, you can implement activities designed to improve care.
• C. It's easy to identify which indicators should be used to measure quality improvement.
• D. You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response is to encourage the newly graduated nurse to actively participate in quality improvement initiatives. Being new does not preclude one from contributing to improving care processes and outcomes. By engaging in small activities focused on quality improvement, the new nurse can start making a positive impact and learn valuable skills early in their career.

3. During an assessment of the respiratory pattern of an older adult client receiving end-of-life care, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

• A. Breathing ranging from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea
• B. Shallow to normal breaths alternating with periods of apnea
• C. Rapid respirations that are unusually deep and regular
• D. An inability to breathe without dyspnea unless sitting upright

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a pattern of breathing that ranges from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea (temporary cessation of breathing). This pattern is often seen in clients near the end of life or with certain medical conditions affecting the respiratory control center in the brain. The alternating deep and shallow breaths can be distressing for both the client and caregivers. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this pattern to provide appropriate care and support to the client and their family during this challenging time.

4. While caring for a client who was injured in a motor-vehicle crash and reports dyspnea and severe pain, a nurse in the emergency department notes that the client's chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. The nurse should identify this finding as which of the following?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Flail chest
• C. Hemothorax
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest movement, where the chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. This occurs due to multiple rib fractures causing a segment of the chest wall to move independently from the rest of the thorax. Atelectasis refers to collapsed lung tissue, hemothorax is blood in the pleural space, and pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with the characteristic findings of flail chest.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.

Similar Questions