Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

2. A client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an ideal weight of 60 kg should have the tidal volume set at which of the following?

• A. 300 mL
• B. 480 mL
• C. 800 mL
• D. 950 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tidal volume is the amount of air delivered with each breath during mechanical ventilation. A common formula used to calculate tidal volume is 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight. For a client with an ideal weight of 60 kg, the expected tidal volume would be 60 kg x 6-8 mL/kg = 360-480 mL. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is 480 mL (Option B), which falls within the expected range based on the client's weight.

3. A client with a pleural effusion is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion of the affected side
• C. Increased tactile fremitus on the affected side
• D. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pleural effusion, decreased breath sounds on the affected side are common due to the presence of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is not expected; dullness on percussion is more likely. Tactile fremitus is typically decreased, not increased, in pleural effusion cases. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side, not toward it, can be seen with large effusions.

4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

5. A client underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is the priority observation in the client's care?

• A. Patency of the intravenous line
• B. Level of pain
• C. Integrity of the dressing
• D. Need for suctioning

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a total laryngectomy, maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction due to secretions or blood clots. Monitoring the need for suctioning takes precedence to ensure the client's airway remains patent. While monitoring pain levels, IV line patency, and dressing integrity are important aspects of care, ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning is the priority in this scenario.

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