Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

2. A client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an ideal weight of 60 kg should have the tidal volume set at which of the following?

• A. 300 mL
• B. 480 mL
• C. 800 mL
• D. 950 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tidal volume is the amount of air delivered with each breath during mechanical ventilation. A common formula used to calculate tidal volume is 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight. For a client with an ideal weight of 60 kg, the expected tidal volume would be 60 kg x 6-8 mL/kg = 360-480 mL. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is 480 mL (Option B), which falls within the expected range based on the client's weight.

3. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?

• A. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
• B. Intact skin behind the ears
• C. The client understanding the need for oxygen
• D. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

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