Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

2. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

3. A client is wearing a Venturi mask to receive oxygen, and the dinner tray has arrived. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen.
• B. Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal.
• C. Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food.
• D. Turn off the oxygen while the client eats the meal and then restart it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should determine if the client can safely switch to a nasal cannula during meals. It is crucial to ensure that the provider has approved this change. Oxygen is considered a medication and should be delivered continuously. Turning off the oxygen or lifting the mask while eating can lead to a decrease in the FiO2 delivered, potentially compromising the client's oxygenation status. Therefore, the best course of action is to ascertain if transitioning to a nasal cannula is appropriate for the client during the meal.

4. A patient is receiving discharge instructions after experiencing a stroke. Which instruction is most important for preventing another stroke?

• A. Take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly.
• B. Engage in physical therapy exercises.
• C. Follow a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.
• D. Attend regular follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly. Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, and controlling blood pressure through medication is crucial in preventing recurrent strokes. While physical therapy, diet, and follow-up appointments are also important aspects of post-stroke care, managing hypertension with medication takes precedence due to its direct impact on stroke prevention.

5. When reviewing the provider's orders, a nurse recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications in a client experiencing an exacerbation of asthma?

• A. Propranolol
• B. Theophylline
• C. Montelukast
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms due to its mechanism of action. It can cause bronchoconstriction, which is harmful for a client experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Theophylline, Montelukast, and Prednisone are commonly used in the treatment of asthma exacerbations and would not typically require clarification in this context.

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