Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

2. During an acute asthma attack, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Loud wheezing
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased breath sounds
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing an acute asthma attack, decreased breath sounds suggest severe airway obstruction or respiratory fatigue, indicating a worsening condition. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and a productive cough are common manifestations during an asthma attack as the airways constrict, leading to turbulent airflow causing wheezing, increased effort to breathe resulting in a higher respiratory rate, and mucus production causing a productive cough. However, decreased breath sounds signify a critical situation requiring immediate intervention.

3. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?

• A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
• B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
• C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
• D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

4. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Report any numbness or tingling in extremities.
• D. Have liver function tests done regularly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial for clients taking isoniazid (INH) due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and early detection through routine liver function tests can help prevent severe complications.

5. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

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