Nursing Elites

1. A client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday needs care. What actions can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)

• A. administer antibiotics every 4 hrs
• B. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices.
• D. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can delegate tasks such as assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TED hose or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Using the spirometer should be encouraged every hour the day after surgery by the nurse. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment. However, if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse for a more detailed assessment.

2. A client with a new tracheostomy is being seen in the oncology clinic. What finding by the nurse best indicates that goals for the nursing diagnosis Impaired Self-Esteem are being met?

• A. The client demonstrates a good understanding of stoma care.
• B. The client has joined a book club that meets at the library.
• C. Family members take turns assisting with stoma care.
• D. Skin around the stoma is intact without signs of infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client joining a book club that meets outside the home and requires him or her to go out in public is the best indicator that goals for Impaired Self-Esteem are being met. This social activity indicates an improvement in self-confidence and willingness to engage with others, which are essential aspects of self-esteem. The other choices, while positive, do not directly address self-esteem concerns related to social interaction and confidence.

3. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Report any numbness or tingling in extremities.
• D. Have liver function tests done regularly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial for clients taking isoniazid (INH) due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and early detection through routine liver function tests can help prevent severe complications.

4. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?

• A. A flexed position
• B. An extended position
• C. A neutral position
• D. A hyperextended position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.

5. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

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