Nursing Elites

1. A client with a long history of smoking is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding is a common complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter
• B. Increased breath sounds
• C. Prolonged expiratory phase
• D. Increased chest expansion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In COPD, a prolonged expiratory phase is a typical finding caused by airway obstruction and air trapping. This results in difficulty expelling air from the lungs, leading to the characteristic prolonged exhalation in individuals with COPD.

2. A client is 12 hours postoperative following colon resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to reduce respiratory complications?

• A. Use incentive spirometer every 4 hours while awake.
• B. Initiate ambulation after discontinuing the NG tube.
• C. Maintain a supine position with an abdominal binder.
• D. Splint the incision to support coughing every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a colon resection surgery, it is essential to support the incision site to reduce the risk of respiratory complications. Splinting the incision helps to minimize pain during coughing, aiding in effective clearing of secretions and preventing respiratory problems. This intervention supports the client's respiratory function postoperatively, promoting optimal recovery.

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

4. What should the nurse prioritize when monitoring an older adult client immediately following a bronchoscopy?

• A. Observing for confusion
• B. Auscultating breath sounds
• C. Confirming the gag reflex
• D. Measuring blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a bronchoscopy, the priority for the nurse is to confirm the gag reflex in the older adult client. This is crucial to ensure that the client's airway is protected and free from any obstruction or aspiration. Monitoring the gag reflex helps in preventing complications such as aspiration pneumonia. While auscultating breath sounds, observing for confusion, and measuring blood pressure are important assessments, confirming the gag reflex takes precedence in this situation to maintain airway patency and prevent potential respiratory complications.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

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