Nursing Elites

1. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?

• A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
• B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
• C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
• D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.

2. A client reports a headache and vertigo after turning on his furnace for the first time this season. The nurse should suspect which of the following conditions?

• A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
• B. Heat stroke
• C. Hypersensitivity reaction
• D. Oxygen toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client reports headache and vertigo after turning on the furnace for the first time, it suggests carbon monoxide poisoning. Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas that can be released by malfunctioning heating systems. Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, dizziness, weakness, nausea, and confusion. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect this condition promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

3. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?

• A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
• B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
• C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
• D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

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