ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. The provider requests the nurse to start an infusion of an inotropic agent on a client. How should the nurse explain the action of these drugs to the client and spouse?
- A. It constricts vessels, improving blood flow.
- B. It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart.
- C. It increases the force of the heart's contractions.
- D. It slows the heart rate down for better filling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An inotropic agent is a medication that increases the force of the heart's contractions, which helps improve cardiac output. Choice A and B are incorrect as inotropic agents do not constrict or dilate vessels. Choice D is also incorrect as inotropic agents do not slow down the heart rate but rather enhance the heart's contractility.
2. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?
- A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
- B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
- C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
- D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.
3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?
- A. Night sweats
- B. Low-grade fever
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blood in the sputum
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
4. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an IV line
- B. Count the respiratory rate
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Prepare equipment for intubation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of seizures. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. The client is experiencing an aura.
- B. The client's antiseizure medication level is within the therapeutic range.
- C. The client has been seizure-free for 2 years.
- D. The client's seizure activity lasts longer than 5 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate intervention as it can lead to status epilepticus, a medical emergency.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access