Nursing Elites

1. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

3. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

4. When teaching a group of clients about emergency care for a snake bite, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Raise the affected extremity above the level of the heart.
• B. Immobilize the affected extremity with a splint
• C. Apply ice to the bite area
• D. Apply a tourniquet to the affected extremity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of snake bites, it is essential to immobilize the affected extremity with a splint to prevent the spread of venom throughout the body. Raising the extremity above the heart level can promote venom spread, and applying ice or a tourniquet can worsen the condition. Immobilization helps reduce movement and slows the circulation of venom, aiding in the prevention of further complications.

5. A client with emphysema is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased chest expansion
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Pursed-lip breathing
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a common manifestation in clients with emphysema. It helps to increase the duration of exhalation and reduce air trapping, aiding in the management of the condition. Decreased chest expansion and bradypnea are not typically associated with emphysema. While cyanosis can occur in severe cases, pursed-lip breathing is a more specific and commonly observed sign of emphysema.

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