ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?
- A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
- B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
- C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
- D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Dexamethasone
- C. Heparin
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario of a pulmonary embolism, the priority medication to administer is Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots and the growth of existing ones, which is crucial in managing pulmonary embolism. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, and Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used for various purposes such as treating bradycardia.
3. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
- B. Daily physical therapy activities.
- C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.
4. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?
- A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
- B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
- C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
- D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.
5. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)
- A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
- B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
- C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
- D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.
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