Nursing Elites

1. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

2. A client learns about pursed-lip breathing. Which statement by the client indicates teaching has been effective?

• A. I will breathe in quickly through my mouth and out through my nose.
• B. I will breathe in slowly through my nose and out through pursed lips.
• C. I will hold my breath for 10 seconds before exhaling.
• D. I will breathe in and out through pursed lips.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for pursed-lip breathing involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips. This technique helps improve expiration and reduce air trapping. Breathing in quickly, holding the breath, or breathing in and out through pursed lips does not align with the correct method of pursed-lip breathing.

3. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

5. A client is going to be admitted for a scheduled surgical procedure. Which action does the nurse explain is the most important thing the client can do to protect against errors?

• A. Bring a list of all medications and their purposes.
• B. Keep the doctor's phone number close by.
• C. Ensure all providers wash their hands before entering the room.
• D. Document the name of each caregiver who enters the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action a client can take to protect against errors is to bring a list of all medications and their purposes. This helps ensure that the healthcare team has accurate information about the client's medications, reducing the risk of medication errors, which are the most common type of healthcare mistake. Knowing the medications and their purposes can also aid in preventing drug interactions and adverse effects during the surgical procedure.

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