Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most commonly associated with this condition?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are commonly associated with left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Left-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli, which results in the characteristic crackling sound upon auscultation.

2. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

3. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

4. A client with diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What should the nurse administer first?

• A. 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously
• B. 50 mL of 50% dextrose solution intravenously
• C. 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• D. 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client experiencing hypoglycemia is administering 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally. If the client is conscious and able to swallow, providing quick-acting carbohydrates helps raise blood glucose levels rapidly and effectively. This approach is preferred over other options like administering insulin, dextrose solution intravenously, or glucagon, which are not the initial interventions for hypoglycemia.

5. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

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