ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Difficulty swallowing
- C. Heart rate of 122/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?
- A. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL
- B. Platelet count: 82,000/µL
- C. RBC count: 4.8 x 10^6/µL
- D. WBC count: 8.7 x 10^3/µL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.
3. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
- A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
- B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
- C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
- D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.
4. A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)
- A. Production of pink sputum
- B. Tracheal deviation
- C. Pain at insertion site
- D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.
5. A client has a pulmonary embolism & is started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why the client's oxygen saturation has not significantly improved. What response by the nurse is best?
- A. Breathing so rapidly interferes with oxygenation.
- B. Maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome.
- C. The blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs.
- D. The client needs immediate intubation & mechanical ventilation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A large blood clot in the lungs will significantly impair gas exchange & oxygenation. Unless the clot is dissolved, this process will continue unabated.
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