ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
- B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
- C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
- D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.
2. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
- A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
- B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
- C. Place the client in a private room.
- D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.
3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Difficulty swallowing
- C. Heart rate of 122/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.
4. A client with emphysema is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse not expect to assess in this client?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Barrel chest
- D. Clubbing of the fingers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by shortness of breath (dyspnea), a barrel-shaped chest due to hyperinflation of the lungs (barrel chest), and clubbing of the fingers (enlargement of fingertips). Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with emphysema. In emphysema, the primary focus is on respiratory complications rather than cardiac issues.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?
- A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight gain
- D. Productive cough with yellow sputum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.
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