Nursing Elites

1. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

2. A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia often leads to the consolidation of lung tissue, resulting in dullness on percussion. This occurs due to the presence of fluid or inflammatory material in the alveoli. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more indicative of conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, where there is an increase in the density of the pleural space or air in the pleural cavity. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is typically associated with conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema, where there is increased air in the alveoli.

3. When prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
• B. A client who has a prescription for discharge
• C. A client who received oral pain medication 30 minutes ago
• D. A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses being short of breath, it may indicate a serious condition requiring immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. This client should be seen first to assess the severity of the situation and initiate appropriate interventions. The other options, such as awaiting transport for an x-ray, having a prescription for discharge, or receiving oral pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not present immediate life-threatening concerns compared to a client experiencing shortness of breath.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 4 mL
• B. 6 mL
• C. 10 mL
• D. 5.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL of albuterol syrup needed per dose, first, determine how many milligrams are in the prescribed dose: 1.6 mg. Next, set up a proportion to find the equivalent mL for 1.6 mg using the given concentration of 2 mg/5mL. The calculation is: (1.6 mg x 5 mL) / 2 mg = 4 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL to administer per dose.

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