Nursing Elites

1. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

2. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

3. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

4. A client with heart failure has gained 2 kg (4.4 lbs) in the past 24 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Assess the client's respiratory status.
• C. Administer diuretics as ordered.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's respiratory status is the priority as it helps determine if the weight gain is due to fluid retention affecting breathing. This assessment is crucial in addressing the immediate concern of potential respiratory distress before implementing interventions like fluid restriction, diuretics, or notifying the healthcare provider.

5. When caring for a client with acute renal failure, which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure, monitoring serum potassium is crucial because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, which can result in life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated potassium levels need close monitoring and prompt interventions to prevent serious complications.

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