Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back."
• B. "I'll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night."
• C. "I'll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night."
• D. "If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

4. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?

• A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
• B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
• C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
• D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
• B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

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