Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Bradypnea
• C. Lethargy
• D. Intercostal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

4. When caring for an older adult client with a pulmonary infection, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
• C. Raise the head of the bed to at least 45 degrees.
• D. Provide the client with humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority because it provides crucial information on the client's neurological status and response to the infection. Changes in consciousness can indicate deterioration or improvement in the client's condition, guiding further interventions and treatment.

5. A home health nurse visits a client who has COPD and receives oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min.
• B. Assess the client's respiratory status.
• C. Call emergency services for the client.
• D. Have the client cough and expectorate secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy reports difficulty breathing, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's respiratory status. This involves evaluating the client's oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, effort of breathing, lung sounds, and overall respiratory distress. By assessing the client's respiratory status, the nurse can determine the severity of the situation and make appropriate decisions regarding further interventions, such as adjusting oxygen flow rate, providing respiratory treatments, or seeking emergency assistance if necessary.

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