a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has cardiogenic pulmonary edema the clients assessment findings include anxiousness dys
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

3. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.

4. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.

5. A client is 1-day postoperative following a left lower lobectomy and has a chest tube in place. When assessing the client's three-chamber drainage system, the nurse notes that there is no bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a three-chamber chest drainage system, the absence of bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates that no suction is being applied to the chest tube. The nurse should first verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for any leaks that may be causing the lack of suction. Adding more water to the chamber or milking the chest tube are inappropriate actions and could potentially harm the client. Monitoring the client without taking action could lead to complications if the chest tube is not functioning properly.

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