Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
• C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
• D. Administer morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

3. While providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and is receiving opioid medications to manage discomfort, which of the following desired effects of medications should the nurse identify as most important for the client's recovery?

• A. It decreases the client's level of anxiety.
• B. It facilitates the client's deep breathing.
• C. It enhances the client's ability to sleep.
• D. It reduces the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the postoperative period following CABG surgery, deep breathing exercises are essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Opioid medications can depress the respiratory system, making it crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of deep breathing to maintain optimal lung function. While managing pain and anxiety are important, facilitating deep breathing takes precedence in this situation to promote effective recovery and prevent respiratory complications.

4. During an assessment of the respiratory pattern of an older adult client receiving end-of-life care, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

• A. Breathing ranging from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea
• B. Shallow to normal breaths alternating with periods of apnea
• C. Rapid respirations that are unusually deep and regular
• D. An inability to breathe without dyspnea unless sitting upright

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a pattern of breathing that ranges from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea (temporary cessation of breathing). This pattern is often seen in clients near the end of life or with certain medical conditions affecting the respiratory control center in the brain. The alternating deep and shallow breaths can be distressing for both the client and caregivers. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this pattern to provide appropriate care and support to the client and their family during this challenging time.

5. When prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report, which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
• B. A client who has a prescription for discharge
• C. A client who received oral pain medication 30 minutes ago
• D. A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses being short of breath, it may indicate a serious condition requiring immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. This client should be seen first to assess the severity of the situation and initiate appropriate interventions. The other options, such as awaiting transport for an x-ray, having a prescription for discharge, or receiving oral pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not present immediate life-threatening concerns compared to a client experiencing shortness of breath.

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