Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
• C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
• D. Administer morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

2. A nurse is observing the closed chest drainage system of a client who is 24 hr post thoracotomy. The nurse notes slow, steady bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check the tubing connections for leaks.
• B. Check the suction control outlet on the wall.
• C. Clamp the chest tube.
• D. Continue to monitor the client's respiratory status.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a closed chest drainage system, slow, steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding, indicating proper functioning of the system. There is no immediate need for intervention as this indicates the system is working as intended. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's respiratory status for any signs of distress or changes. Checking tubing connections for leaks or clamping the chest tube are unnecessary actions based on the information provided. Checking the suction control outlet on the wall is also not indicated in this scenario.

3. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?

• A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
• B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
• C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
• D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.

4. During an acute asthma attack, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Loud wheezing
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased breath sounds
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing an acute asthma attack, decreased breath sounds suggest severe airway obstruction or respiratory fatigue, indicating a worsening condition. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and a productive cough are common manifestations during an asthma attack as the airways constrict, leading to turbulent airflow causing wheezing, increased effort to breathe resulting in a higher respiratory rate, and mucus production causing a productive cough. However, decreased breath sounds signify a critical situation requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
• D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

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