Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
• C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
• D. Administer morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

2. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

3. A client with emphysema is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased chest expansion
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Pursed-lip breathing
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a common manifestation in clients with emphysema. It helps to increase the duration of exhalation and reduce air trapping, aiding in the management of the condition. Decreased chest expansion and bradypnea are not typically associated with emphysema. While cyanosis can occur in severe cases, pursed-lip breathing is a more specific and commonly observed sign of emphysema.

4. When reviewing the provider's orders, a nurse recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications in a client experiencing an exacerbation of asthma?

• A. Propranolol
• B. Theophylline
• C. Montelukast
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms due to its mechanism of action. It can cause bronchoconstriction, which is harmful for a client experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Theophylline, Montelukast, and Prednisone are commonly used in the treatment of asthma exacerbations and would not typically require clarification in this context.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

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