Nursing Elites

1. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction (MI). What is the priority assessment for this client?

• A. Monitoring urine output
• B. Checking blood glucose levels
• C. Assessing for chest pain
• D. Monitoring electrolyte levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing for chest pain is crucial in post-MI clients as it can indicate complications such as reinfarction or ischemia.

3. A client had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?

• A. Poor impulse control
• B. Inability to discriminate words and letters
• C. Deficits in the right visual field
• D. Motor retardation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stroke affecting the right cerebral hemisphere can lead to poor impulse control due to the involvement of this area in regulating behavior and inhibiting impulses. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with stroke affecting the left cerebral hemisphere. Inability to discriminate words and letters may be seen in left cerebral hemisphere strokes. Motor retardation may be observed with strokes affecting motor areas in either hemisphere but is not the most specific finding related to a right cerebral hemisphere stroke.

4. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

5. A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?

• A. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula.
• B. Encourage oral intake of at least 3,000 mL of fluids per day.
• C. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently.
• D. Place in a prone position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.

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