Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?

• A. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
• B. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
• C. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
• D. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats & red meat, high in vegetables & whole grains (fiber), low in salt, & low in trans-fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli & tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat & the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat & no vegetables.

2. How can a nurse manager best improve hand-off communication among the staff? (SATA)

• A. Attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
• B. Conducting audits of staff using a new template.
• C. Creating a template of topics to include in the report.
• D. Utilizing the SHARE model as a tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The SHARE model is a valuable tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication. By utilizing this model, the nurse manager can ensure consistency and clarity in hand-off communication among the staff. While attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor, conducting audits using a new template, and creating a template of topics to include in the report can all be beneficial actions, the most effective approach to achieve the goal of improving hand-off communication is by implementing a standardized tool like the SHARE model.

3. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.

5. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

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