ATI RN
ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical
1. A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back."
- B. "I'll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night."
- C. "I'll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night."
- D. "If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
2. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
- B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
- C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
- D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.
3. When reviewing the provider's orders, a nurse recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications in a client experiencing an exacerbation of asthma?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Theophylline
- C. Montelukast
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms due to its mechanism of action. It can cause bronchoconstriction, which is harmful for a client experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Theophylline, Montelukast, and Prednisone are commonly used in the treatment of asthma exacerbations and would not typically require clarification in this context.
4. A client with a long history of smoking is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding is a common complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter
- B. Increased breath sounds
- C. Prolonged expiratory phase
- D. Increased chest expansion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In COPD, a prolonged expiratory phase is a typical finding caused by airway obstruction and air trapping. This results in difficulty expelling air from the lungs, leading to the characteristic prolonged exhalation in individuals with COPD.
5. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Night sweats
- C. Confusion
- D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.
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