Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 4 mL
• B. 6 mL
• C. 10 mL
• D. 5.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL of albuterol syrup needed per dose, first, determine how many milligrams are in the prescribed dose: 1.6 mg. Next, set up a proportion to find the equivalent mL for 1.6 mg using the given concentration of 2 mg/5mL. The calculation is: (1.6 mg x 5 mL) / 2 mg = 4 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL to administer per dose.

2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.

3. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

4. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an IV line
• B. Count the respiratory rate
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare equipment for intubation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.

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