a nurse in the emergency department is assessing an older adult client who has community acquired pneumonia which of the following findings should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. During an assessment in the emergency department, an older adult client with community-acquired pneumonia is found to be confused. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is a common finding in older adult clients with pneumonia, often indicating hypoxia. Hypertension, unequal pupils, and tympany upon chest percussion are not typically associated with community-acquired pneumonia in older adults.

2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

3. During pulmonary hygiene for a client with pneumonia, a nurse positions the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position. From which of the following lung segments should the nurse expect secretions to be mobilized with the client in this position?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is positioned on the left side in Trendelenburg position for pulmonary hygiene, secretions are expected to be mobilized from the lateral segment of the right lower lobe. This positioning helps facilitate drainage and clearance of secretions from this specific area of the lung, aiding in overall pulmonary hygiene and improving ventilation.

4. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) appears thin and disheveled. Which question should the nurse ask first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with severe COPD, shortness of breath can significantly impact their ability to perform basic activities like bathing and eating. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to assess if shortness of breath is interfering with the client's basic activities, which can provide crucial information for planning and managing care.

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