a nurse cares for a client who has a pleural chest tube which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.

2. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. A healthcare provider suspects anaphylaxis when caring for a client following the initial administration of an oral antibiotic. Which of the following should be the healthcare provider's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suspecting anaphylaxis, the priority intervention is to assess the client's respiratory status by counting the respiratory rate. Respiratory distress is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis, and prompt recognition and management are crucial. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence to determine the severity of the reaction and the need for immediate intervention. Inserting an IV line and preparing for intubation are important interventions in managing anaphylaxis but are secondary to ensuring adequate ventilation.

5. A client takes atorvastatin (Lipitor), with laboratory results showing a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. The client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating kidney involvement. The nurse should ask if the client consumes grapefruit or grapefruit juice. While dehydration can elevate BUN, the increase in creatinine is more specific for kidney injury.

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