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ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A
1. A client had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Observe for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site.
- B. Assess for an increase in temperature.
- C. Check the oximeter.
- D. Monitor for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client who had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the nurse's priority is to check the oximeter. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially after such a procedure. This assessment helps in early detection of hypoxemia, which can be detrimental to the client's recovery. While observing for CSF leaks, assessing for temperature changes, and monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure are important, checking the oximeter takes precedence to address immediate oxygenation needs.
2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)
- A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
- B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
- C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
- D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.
4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.
5. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase protein intake.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 mL/day.
- C. Consume a low-sodium diet.
- D. Take a daily multivitamin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites, the nurse should instruct them to consume a low-sodium diet. This dietary modification helps reduce fluid retention and manage ascites by decreasing the amount of sodium in the body, which helps prevent fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Limiting sodium intake is crucial in managing ascites and preventing further complications in clients with cirrhosis.
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