Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 wks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this situation is whether they have any active lesions due to the history of herpes simplex virus. This is crucial to assess the risk of transmission to the newborn during labor. Option A is not the priority in this case as the focus is on the client's history of herpes simplex virus. Option B is important but does not directly relate to the risk of herpes simplex virus transmission. Option D is unrelated to the client's condition and the current situation.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid sitting in a chair for longer than 30 minutes.
• B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• C. I will bend at the hips to pick up items from the floor.
• D. I will avoid using a raised toilet seat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bending at the hips can dislocate the hip joint in clients who have had a total hip arthroplasty. This movement should be avoided to prevent complications post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Avoiding prolonged sitting, crossing legs, and using a raised toilet seat are all appropriate measures to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min.
• B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will decrease my potassium intake while taking this medication.
• B. I will need to take medication for the rest of my life.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with hypertension should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which can raise potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect as decreasing potassium intake is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as not all clients with hypertension need to take medication for life. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice does not significantly impact hypertension management.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This insulin has a peak effect of 2 to 4 hours.
• B. This insulin has a duration of action of 24 hours.
• C. This insulin is given before meals to control your blood sugar.
• D. You should avoid eating 30 minutes before or after taking this insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.

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