a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets after securing the clients airway and initiatin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

3. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.

4. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which of the following values is a contraindication to the administration of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 50,000/mm³. A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ increases the risk of bleeding, making heparin contraindicated. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count can lead to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications to heparin administration. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range, white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ is also normal, and an INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for patients receiving heparin therapy.

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