Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 90/min.
• B. WBC count 15,000/mm3.
• C. Urinary output 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
• D. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

3. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease?

• A. Low protein diet
• B. High protein diet
• C. Low sodium diet
• D. High sodium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease is a low protein diet. In liver disease, the liver may have difficulty processing protein, leading to the accumulation of toxins like ammonia in the body. A low protein diet helps reduce the burden on the liver and minimizes the production of these harmful substances. High protein diets can exacerbate the condition by increasing the workload on the liver. A low sodium diet (Choice C) is also important for liver disease patients as excess sodium can contribute to fluid retention and swelling, but reducing protein intake is the primary focus in these cases.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent another heart attack.
• B. I should expect to experience chest pain when I exercise.
• C. I will increase my intake of saturated fats.
• D. I will participate in a cardiac rehabilitation program.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing the intake of saturated fats can raise cholesterol levels, which is not recommended after a myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements indicating a good understanding of post-myocardial infarction care. Taking a daily aspirin can help prevent another heart attack, experiencing chest pain with exercise is a common expectation post-myocardial infarction, and participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program is important for recovery and improving heart health.

5. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?

• A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.

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