ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Almonds
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Chicken breast
- D. Pasta
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.
3. A nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left-sided hemiplegia. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Consult with a case manager regarding insurance coverage.
- B. Counsel caregivers on respite care options.
- C. Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.
- D. Refer the client to a local stroke support group.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.' For a client with left-sided hemiplegia, physical therapy is crucial in restoring function and mobility. It is the nurse's priority to ensure the client receives the necessary rehabilitation services. Consulting with a case manager about insurance coverage (Choice A) is important but not the priority at this stage. Counseling caregivers on respite care options (Choice B) and referring the client to a local stroke support group (Choice D) are also valuable but not as essential as ensuring the client has access to physical therapy for rehabilitation.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips.
- B. Red, swollen gums.
- C. White patches on the tongue.
- D. Pale, dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
- B. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Massaging the client's legs may dislodge a clot and is contraindicated in this situation (choice A). Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of DVT due to prolonged immobility (choice B). While administering anticoagulants is a common treatment for DVT, in this case, the question is about preventive measures, and using sequential compression devices is a non-pharmacological approach.
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