Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
• B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
• C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Apples.
• B. White bread.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Grapes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.

3. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. Post-surgery, confusion in a patient could be due to hypoxia, a condition where the body is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply. Administering oxygen helps address hypoxia promptly, improving oxygen levels in the body and potentially resolving the confusion. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and performing a neurological exam may be important interventions but addressing hypoxia with oxygen administration takes precedence as the priority action.

4. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Take this medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
• D. You should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to take levothyroxine in the morning is important to prevent insomnia, a common side effect of this medication. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is inaccurate because weight loss, not weight gain, is a potential side effect of levothyroxine. Choice D is not necessary as clients do not need to avoid foods containing iodine while taking levothyroxine.

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