ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucose 180 mg/dL
- B. Sodium 136 mEq/L
- C. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Mouth sores
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Increased saliva production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
4. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucagon
- B. Provide oral glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Monitor blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing oral glucose is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia. Oral glucose helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, making it the preferred treatment for mild hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon (Choice A) is usually reserved for severe cases when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice D) is important but providing glucose is the immediate priority to treat hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.
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