a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration what should the nurse identify as a risk fact
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of amoxicillin to a client who has an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic instead of administering amoxicillin to a client with a known penicillin allergy. Choice A is incorrect because administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy can lead to an allergic reaction. Choice B is not the best option as simply verifying the client's allergy status does not address the potential harm of giving amoxicillin. Choice D is irrelevant as checking the client's skin for rashes does not address the issue of administering a potentially harmful medication. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to request a different antibiotic from the provider to ensure the safety of the client.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

5. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.

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