ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Consume foods high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is to consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and helps reduce IBS symptoms by aiding digestion and preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen IBS symptoms as it may cause bloating and gas. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten may also be problematic for individuals with IBS as gluten-containing foods can trigger symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- B. Take this medication with a meal.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
3. A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will choose processed meats for meals.
- B. I will eat canned vegetables to reduce my sodium intake.
- C. I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables each day.
- D. I will increase my intake of canned soups.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Choosing fresh fruits and vegetables is a healthy choice for someone with hypertension as they are low in sodium and high in nutrients. Processed meats (A) are high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can worsen hypertension. Canned vegetables (B) often have added sodium, so fresh is a better choice. Canned soups (D) are typically high in sodium and should be limited in a hypertensive diet.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's dentures in a labeled container
- B. Remove the client's IV lines
- C. Place the client's body in a semi-fowler's position
- D. Lower the client's head of the bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
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