Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
• B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
• D. This medication decreases my appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

2. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Polyuria
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Nuchal rigidity.
• B. Flaccid paralysis.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Hypothermia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.

4. What is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Provide oral fluids
• C. Encourage fluid intake
• D. Administer electrolytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration because it is the fastest and most effective way to rehydrate the body. IV fluids can quickly restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance in severe cases of dehydration. Providing oral fluids or encouraging fluid intake may not be sufficient for patients with moderate to severe dehydration, as they may have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. While electrolytes are essential for rehydration, administering them alone without fluid replacement may not address the primary issue of fluid loss in dehydration.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

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