ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
- B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
- C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
- D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.
3. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?
- A. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank.
- B. Collecting a urine sample.
- C. Measuring the client's pain level.
- D. Transporting a client to x-ray.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.
4. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who has just returned from surgery?
- A. Monitor respiratory rate
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check the surgical site
- D. Monitor heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. This assessment is essential as it ensures that the patient is breathing adequately post-surgery. Maintaining a patent airway and adequate oxygenation are the top priorities in the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring blood pressure, checking the surgical site, or monitoring heart rate are important assessments but are not the priority immediately upon the patient's return from surgery.
5. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
- B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
- C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
- D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
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