ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is the initial and priority intervention to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body tissues. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but is not the first-line intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not a standard intervention for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause like dehydration. Repositioning the patient (Choice D) can aid in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress.
2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which of the following actions by the nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Stands with feet shoulder-width apart when lifting a client up in bed.
- B. Raises the client's knees before pulling the client up in bed.
- C. Uses a mechanical lift to move a client from bed to chair.
- D. Places a gait belt around the client's waist before assisting the client to stand.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a mechanical lift is an appropriate ergonomic technique as it reduces the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client by promoting safe client handling practices. Choice A is incorrect as standing with feet shoulder-width apart provides better balance and stability during lifting. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's knees is not directly related to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect as placing a gait belt around the client's waist is a safety measure but does not specifically demonstrate an understanding of ergonomic principles.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min.
- B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
- B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
- C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
- D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
- B. The client develops hiccups.
- C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
- D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
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