Nursing Elites

1. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Reposition the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is the initial and priority intervention to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body tissues. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but is not the first-line intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not a standard intervention for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause like dehydration. Repositioning the patient (Choice D) can aid in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Sedation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide information about stress management.
• B. Maintain a cool temperature in the client's room.
• C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
• D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
• B. The client develops hiccups.
• C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
• D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Headache.
• D. Urinary retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

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